Quiz 07/26/2022

A 78-year-old male with a past medical history of diabetes presents to the clinic with a 2-year history of progressive lower extremity numbness and pain. He describes the pain as “pins and needles”. Physical examination reveals loss of pinprick sensation to the ankles bilaterally, mute Achilles reflexes, and moderate difficulty with tandem gait. A diagnosis is made based on examination and clinical history. What is the mechanism of action of the most appropriate first-line therapeutic agent?

A 33-year-old female presents to the clinic for evaluation of a left lower extremity foot drop. On physical examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion. Ankle eversion, inversion, and plantar flexion strength are normal. Hip abduction strength is normal as well. Which of the following is the most likely etiology for the patient’s symptoms?

A 24-year-old male presents to the clinic with numbness in the hands and feet. He has been experiencing these symptoms since his late teens, but the numbness has gotten progressively worse. Additionally, he has been stumbling and losing his balance more frequently in the past 18 months, and he received a new pair of glasses because he was having trouble with his vision at night. On physical exam, he has decreased sensation to vibration and pinprick in his bilateral lower extremities and palpable, enlarged nerves. Laboratory studies reveal an elevated level of phytanic acid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Concentrically-layered Schwann-cell processes (“onion bulbs”) are seen surrounding nerve fibers on nerve biopsy in which of the following diseases?

What is the mechanism of action of pregabalin?

A 60-year-old woman with a history of diabetes is presenting to the neurology clinic with a 4-month history of burning/tingling in her bilateral toes. Neurological examination revealed 5/5 strength in all muscle groups, normal reflexes, and intact sensation to light touch in the bilateral lower extremities. There was mildly decreased sensation to pinprick in the 1^st toe bilaterally. Which of the following tests is the most likely to be diagnostic for this patient?

A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with a fifteen-year history of progressive weakness and sensory loss in his lower extremities. Examination shows hammertoes, high arches on his feet, 4/5 ankle dorsiflexion strength, and a mild decrease in sensation to pinprick in the 1st toes bilaterally. Upon questioning he mentions that his father had similar-looking feet and started to use a cane in his fifties. What is the most likely diagnosis for his symptoms?

A 16-year-old male with no significant past medical history presents to the emergency room with vision complaints and coordination issues. Four days ago, he began experiencing double vision and since then has had progressive difficulty picking up objects and buttoning his shirts. On physical exam, the patient has a decreased range of motion of the extraocular muscles bilaterally, as well as areflexia and ataxia when walking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient with a history of a right shoulder anterior dislocation comes to the clinic with the chief complaint of right arm numbness. On examination, there is a loss of sensation to light touch on the lateral portion of the upper arm. Based on the sensory disturbance, which of the following nerves is most likely injured?